pp为素数,我们以符号panp^{a}||n表达panp^{a}||npa+1np^{a+1}\nmid n.

代数学讲义中的一道习题就是证明勒让德公式:

pp为素数.对所有非零整数mm取唯一的vp(m)Z0v_{p}(m)\in \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}使得pvp(m)mp^{v_{p}(m)}||m.
(1)设nZ0n\in \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}.证明vp(n!)=k=1npkv_{p}(n!)=\sum\limits_{ k = 1 }^\infty \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p^{k}} \right\rfloor.
(2)作pp进制展开n=a0+a1p++arprn=a_{0}+a_{1}p+\dots+a_{r}p^{r}.基于(1),证明:vp(n!)=ni=0raip1v_{p}(n!)=\frac{n-\sum\limits_{ i=0 }^ra_{i}}{p-1}.

证明:(1)1,2,3,,n1,2,3,\dots,n中,
能被pp整除的有np\left\lfloor \frac{n}{p} \right\rfloor个,为vp(n!)v_{p}(n!)贡献11
能被p2p^{2}整除的有np2\left\lfloor \frac{n}{p^{2}} \right\rfloor个,为vp(n!)v_{p}(n!)贡献22
\dots
能被pkp^{k}整除的有npk\left\lfloor \frac{n}{p^{k}} \right\rfloor个,为vp(n!)v_{p}(n!)贡献kk
但被pkp^{k}整除的,同时也被pk1,pk2,,p2,pp^{k-1},p^{k-2},\dots,p^{2},p整除,
所以每部分只用计算11的贡献值,即证得(1).
(2)在(1)的基础上,这是显然的:

vp(n!)=k=1i=0raipipk=i=0rk=1aipipk=i=0rk=1aipi1p1=i=0raipii=0raip1=ni=0raip1\begin{align} v_{p}(n!) & =\sum\limits_{ k=1 }^\infty \left\lfloor \frac{\sum\limits_{ i=0}^r a_{i}p^{i} }{p^{k}} \right\rfloor \\ & =\sum\limits_{ i=0 }^{r} \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\left\lfloor \frac{a_{i}p^{i}}{p^{k}} \right\rfloor \\ & =\sum_{i=0}^{r} \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_{i}\frac{p^{i}-1}{p-1} \\ & =\frac{\sum_{i=0}^{r}a_{i}p^{i}-\sum_{i=0}^{r}a_{i} }{p-1} \\ & =\frac{n-\sum_{i=0}^{r}a_{i} }{p-1} \end{align}

Kummer定理

vp(Cn+m<!swig0>)v_{p}(C_{n+m}^)等于nnmmpp进制加法中进位的次数。

简要推导:

vp(Cn+mm)=vp((n+m)!)vp(m!)vp(n!)=i=1n+mpii=1mpii=1npi=i=1(n+mpimpinpi)\begin{align} v_{p}(C_{n+m}^{m}) & =v_{p}((n+m)!)-v_{p}(m!)-v_{p}(n!) \\ & =\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{n+m}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor - \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{m}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor-\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor \\ & =\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left( \left\lfloor \frac{n+m}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor-\left\lfloor \frac{m}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor -\left\lfloor \frac{n}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor \right) \end{align}

对于每一个ii,n+mpimpinpi\left\lfloor \frac{n+m}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor-\left\lfloor \frac{m}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor -\left\lfloor \frac{n}{p^{i}} \right\rfloor在第ii位进位时为11,否则为00

推论:vp(Cpm<!swig1>)=mvp(k)v_{p}(C_{p^{m}}^)=m-v_{p}(k)

简单应用
(x1)2025(x-1)^{2025}的展开式中,系数为偶数的有多少项。

由二项式定理,即求满足C2025x0(mod2)C_{2025}^{x}\equiv 0\pmod{2}的个数,
先求满足C2025x1(mod2)C_{2025}^{x}\equiv 1\pmod{2}的个数,即v2(C2025x)=0v_{2}(C_{2025}^{x})=0
故二进制中20172017的某位为00,那么xx这位也必须为00;为11xx无限制。
(2017)10=(11111101001)2(2017)_{10}=(11111101001)_{2},共8811,答案为202628=17702026-2^{8}=1770